ln = int^pi/40 tan^n x dx , then limn→∞ [ln + ln - 2] equals
What is the easiest proof of e^ (pi*i) =-1? - Quora
integral from -infinity to infinity of exp(-x^2) is sqrt(pi). I always found this very elegant. | Mathematics geometry, Physics and mathematics, Studying math
e to the pi i = -1 paradox - YouTube
Solved Prove that 1/2 pi integral^2 pi_0 |f(e^i theta)|^2 d | Chegg.com